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Old 08-01-2013, 23:53
lexi22
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Join Date: Aug 2008
Posts: 15,426
Well, that's the thing isn't it...it's clear from this thread that term means different things to different people.

Child abuse that involves something of a sexual nature will (most likely) be called a peadophilic offense. However, the sexual nature of the abuse might be the offender doing that simply for a power-trip as sex is something that can be wielded as power in both directions and by an abuser/offender doing such a thing they are wielding substantial power over that person.

Having known people who have worked in that area they did say intimate that peadophiles did that sort of thing out of power as well as or instead of 'simply' a sexual thing.
Yes, I see what you mean and what your question is. I think power is aways part of it, whether the crime is physical or sexual, because an adult, by virtue of being an adult, and bigger and more powerful, automatically has power over a small child.

But I do think there's a clear distinction between someone who hurts and causes physical harm to a child (involving brutality and sexual violence), and someone who sexually abuses a child but doesn't physically hurt them (obviously other than hurting them by a sexual act) if that makes sense...?
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