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Quick grammar/spelling advice please?

[Deleted User][Deleted User] Posts: 0
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Hi there!
Just have an essay I've got a quick query over (medieval English, due tomorrow, should have done it earlier I know :p)
When saying "a knight of King Arthur's court" , do "knight" and "court" need to be capitalised?
Also the same with "the queen of King Arthur's court", capitalised or not?
Finally, "medieval England", does medieval need to be capitalised? :p
Thank you, getting my German and English nouns mixed up!
x

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    GaditanoGaditano Posts: 2,224
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    Court, knight and medieval - no capitals.

    Queen - not so sure but I would capitalise if you were naming a specific queen, but not if you're not.
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    [Deleted User][Deleted User] Posts: 12,881
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    If the Queen refers specifically to a named person, ie Guinevere, then it should be captalised.

    Knight is an occupation in the court like cook or servant or maid so that does not need a capital.

    Medieval England is a specific period in British history like the Ice Age or Dark Ages so I would capitalise it.

    I would not capitalise court.
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    [Deleted User][Deleted User] Posts: 0
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    Thanks so much!
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    John259John259 Posts: 28,467
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    One solution with these questions is to try to find a professionally written article on the web which includes the phrases. Online encyclopedias are often useful but not the only possibility.
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    gomezzgomezz Posts: 44,625
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    Recast the sentence so that it starts with Medieval. ;)
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    esquilaxesquilax Posts: 476
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    By the way, I believe "mediaeval" is the traditional British spelling and "medieval" is the American spelling. No one's likely to mark you down for spelling it without the "a" these days, though.
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    gomezzgomezz Posts: 44,625
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    Mediaeval or Mediæval? ;)
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    [Deleted User][Deleted User] Posts: 5,432
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    Both spelling are correct - but the simplified spelling is used more often - and in most university course names
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    gomezzgomezz Posts: 44,625
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    Both? There are three accepted spellings.
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    mrkite77mrkite77 Posts: 5,386
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    gomezz wrote: »
    Both? There are three accepted spellings.

    No. The ligature you used is simply a typographical affectation, it's *not* a separate character.

    It's even part of the unicode standard that the ligature "æ" is identical to "ae".

    Here's proof in Ruby:
    irb(main):001:0> "Mediæval".length
    => 9
    irb(main):002:0> "Mediaeval".length
    => 9
    

    Both 9 characters long.
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    gomezzgomezz Posts: 44,625
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    I would rather rely on the authority of an etymologist than a computer programmer.
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    jsmith99jsmith99 Posts: 20,382
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    Only when it comes to bugs, surely? :D
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    gomezzgomezz Posts: 44,625
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    You need to consult either an etymologist or an entymologist either of whom should be able to explain it to you. ;)
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    jsmith99jsmith99 Posts: 20,382
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    I'm glad someone appreciated my rather weak joke. :D
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