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Mortgage offer letter

juventino1juventino1 Posts: 154
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My cousin received a mortgage offer and in one of the conditions they asked him to pay his outstanding loans within 30 days of completion and never to take any more loans out.

He is confused since he is in a good job and his wife is in a very good job, their credit score is high and their loans are minimal compared to their salaries and they are only asking for 78% LTV which i believe is quite good...

Any ideas why the bank has inserted this clause and any advice when contacting them about it? He is thinking of calling it a day with them and just back out of this arrangement.

Thanks
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    davidmcndavidmcn Posts: 12,112
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    Sounds like rather an odd condition, but if the loans are minimal can't they increase the mortgage by enough to pay them off?

    ETA Assuming this is a remortgage, are the existing loans secured loans?
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    gemma-the-huskygemma-the-husky Posts: 18,116
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    presumably they are concerned about him taking on other debt which would affect his ability to repay the home loan ...


    but what loans would they be talking about?

    what happens if he wants to buy a car in the future, say?
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    varialectiovarialectio Posts: 2,377
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    juventino1 wrote: »
    My cousin received a mortgage offer and in one of the conditions they asked him to pay his outstanding loans within 30 days of completion and never to take any more loans out.

    He is confused since he is in a good job and his wife is in a very good job, their credit score is high and their loans are minimal compared to their salaries and they are only asking for 78% LTV which i believe is quite good...

    Any ideas why the bank has inserted this clause and any advice when contacting them about it? He is thinking of calling it a day with them and just back out of this arrangement.

    Thanks

    But are the loans for high enough amounts that they would be in difficulties if either job was lost?
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    RoushRoush Posts: 4,368
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    You need to post the exact wording of the clause, and in context, for any advice to be relevant.

    Or you could just speak to the bank directly about it.
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    Tweacle Tart IITweacle Tart II Posts: 5,079
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    Conditions to repay loans/credit cards/store cards are standard if i) they affect affordability and/or ii) it was declared they would be repaid on completion on the application form.

    I have never heard of a condition stating that the applicants are to never take out a loan again ever (sounds very dramatic) How could they possibly hope to control that? :confused:

    Which mortgage lender is it?
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    juventino1juventino1 Posts: 154
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    davidmcn wrote: »
    Sounds like rather an odd condition, but if the loans are minimal can't they increase the mortgage by enough to pay them off?

    ETA Assuming this is a remortgage, are the existing loans secured loans?

    No, he has 2 hire purchase agreements but nothing registered against his home..
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    Joel's dadJoel's dad Posts: 4,886
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    I was to,d to do this for my first mortgage ten years ago.
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    juventino1juventino1 Posts: 154
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    Roush wrote: »
    You need to post the exact wording of the clause, and in context, for any advice to be relevant.

    Or you could just speak to the bank directly about it.

    The exact wording are

    " You must repay the following commitments in full within 30 days of completion of this Mortgage without taking on further Borrowing

    Hire Purchase: XXXXX
    Hire Purchase: XXXXX"
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    c4rvc4rv Posts: 29,627
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    I can understand existing loans effecting the application but I've never heard of a clause saying they can't take loans out in the future.

    The only think I could find online was wording to the effect that the mortgage terms offered will no apply to future loan applications (i.e. re-mortgaging)
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    juventino1juventino1 Posts: 154
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    But are the loans for high enough amounts that they would be in difficulties if either job was lost?

    They are not of a high enough amount and even if you dont have loans and you lose your job you will be in big trouble anyway...
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    juventino1juventino1 Posts: 154
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    Conditions to repay loans/credit cards/store cards are standard if i) they affect affordability and/or ii) it was declared they would be repaid on completion on the application form.

    I have never heard of a condition stating that the applicants are to never take out a loan again ever (sounds very dramatic) How could they possibly hope to control that? :confused:

    Which mortgage lender is it?

    Woolwich... He spoke to the mortgage adviser and they said that this is for their affordability calculation and in 17 years in the business she never came across someone being checked after the completion.
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    juventino1juventino1 Posts: 154
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    Joel's dad wrote: »
    I was to,d to do this for my first mortgage ten years ago.

    Did they check up on you if you took furtehr loans later?
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    Joel's dadJoel's dad Posts: 4,886
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    juventino1 wrote: »
    Did they check up on you if you took furtehr loans later?

    No they didn't.
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    YosemiteYosemite Posts: 6,192
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    juventino1 wrote: »
    My cousin received a mortgage offer and in one of the conditions they asked him to pay his outstanding loans within 30 days of completion and never to take any more loans out.

    But it doesn't say anything of the kind, does it?

    As you later revealed, the mortgage condition reads :
    juventino1 wrote: »
    The exact wording are

    " You must repay the following commitments in full within 30 days of completion of this Mortgage without taking on further Borrowing

    Hire Purchase: XXXXX
    Hire Purchase: XXXXX"

    This means what it says, i.e. that Woolwich expects these two hire purchase agreements to be repaid within 30 days of completion, without borrowing the funds to do so from another source.

    My guess is that your cousin assured them that he was able to repay these HP agreements from his own resources, and Woolwich took this into account when assessing his mortgage application for "affordability".

    How you have interpreted this to mean that he can "never take any more loans out" is a complete mystery to me. :confused:
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    gemma-the-huskygemma-the-husky Posts: 18,116
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    I still do not understand .... why would they insist you finalise an existing HP contract.

    a) you may not actually be able to and
    b) there may be early redemption penalties

    unless the Woolwich offer included extra borrowing to provide funds to do this?
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    juventino1juventino1 Posts: 154
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    Yosemite wrote: »
    But it doesn't say anything of the kind, does it?

    As you later revealed, the mortgage condition reads :



    This means what it says, i.e. that Woolwich expects these two hire purchase agreements to be repaid within 30 days of completion, without borrowing the funds to do so from another source.

    My guess is that your cousin assured them that he was able to repay these HP agreements from his own resources, and Woolwich took this into account when assessing his mortgage application for "affordability".

    How you have interpreted this to mean that he can "never take any more loans out" is a complete mystery to me. :confused:

    He understood it as he has to pay those 2 agreements and cant take any further borrowing in the future if he needs to.. tbh i understood it as the same and not specific to those 2 agreements only.
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    juventino1juventino1 Posts: 154
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    I still do not understand .... why would they insist you finalise an existing HP contract.

    a) you may not actually be able to and
    b) there may be early redemption penalties

    unless the Woolwich offer included extra borrowing to provide funds to do this?

    I honestly dont know why the insistance on those 2 agreements to be paid... He is able to pay them off since they have checked everything and offered him the mortgage in the first place.
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    [Deleted User][Deleted User] Posts: 1,717
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    Could it be that the amount being borrowed was partly to for debt consolidation? So he took £60k as a remortgage say and then a further £20k to pay off those existing loans?

    I think the wording of the offer suggests the money should be used for this purpose only and that they shouldn't take out further borrowing for debt consolidation.

    If this is the case, the funds should go to the solicitor to distribute anyway, so it's not like they would end up in your cousin's bank account for him to decide whether to pay off the debts or go on a spending spree!
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    YosemiteYosemite Posts: 6,192
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    I still do not understand .... why would they insist you finalise an existing HP contract.

    Without knowing the full circumstances, it's impossible to say with certainty, but it may be that the Woolwich's "affordability calculation" would only permit approval of the mortgage application if these monthly HP commitments were no longer payable.
    a) you may not actually be able to and
    b) there may be early redemption penalties

    (a) An HP agreement can always be repaid early (although this may indeed trigger a penalty clause).

    (b) This isn't the Woolwich's problem.
    unless the Woolwich offer included extra borrowing to provide funds to do this?

    Perhaps it did ? We simply don't know.
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    YosemiteYosemite Posts: 6,192
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    juventino1 wrote: »
    He understood it as he has to pay those 2 agreements and cant take any further borrowing in the future if he needs to.. tbh i understood it as the same and not specific to those 2 agreements only.

    The wording of the mortgage offer (as provided by you) doesn't say this (the emboldened part), so I would suggest that he misunderstood - and so have you.
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    Joolz1975Joolz1975 Posts: 1,647
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    We had this Claus with Woolwich also and as someone has already stated it meant that we were to pay off existing debts (car and credit card) with the money borrowed.

    If the Woolwich have lent them extra funds to consolidate existing debts then they are within their rights to specify that this is done.

    I suppose people ask for extra money for things and spend it instead and then need to borrow more money later, they are covering themselves by stating debts must be cleared without borrowing extra from elsewhere to do so.
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    gemma-the-huskygemma-the-husky Posts: 18,116
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    these provisos make sense - but surely the OP's cousin understood what they were telling him, when they offered him the money?
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    Tweacle Tart IITweacle Tart II Posts: 5,079
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    Yosemite wrote: »
    But it doesn't say anything of the kind, does it?

    his means what it says, i.e. that Woolwich expects these two hire purchase agreements to be repaid within 30 days of completion, without borrowing the funds to do so from another source.

    My guess is that your cousin assured them that he was able to repay these HP agreements from his own resources, and Woolwich took this into account when assessing his mortgage application for "affordability".

    How you have interpreted this to mean that he can "never take any more loans out" is a complete mystery to me. :confused:

    Agreed.
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    getzlsgetzls Posts: 4,007
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    Yes, that never take a loan again bit has to be wrong. When i went for my mortgage a year ago they asked about any loans/ credit cards i owed. Told them i would be clearing them within week or so. They didn't ask for proof i had done so. Though i did clear them.
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    chrisw99chrisw99 Posts: 2,403
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    juventino1 wrote: »
    The exact wording are

    " You must repay the following commitments in full within 30 days of completion of this Mortgage without taking on further Borrowing
    Hire Purchase: XXXXX
    Hire Purchase: XXXXX"

    I think the bits in bold means do not take on further borrowing *within the 30 days of completion of this mortgage*. That's how I read it anyway. So the OP is half right, yes you have to repay the loans and yes you can't take out further ones, but only in that 30 day period.
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