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An accounting question!
alisonrose3764
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hi - any accountants out there?
I live in a flat - we own the freehold - all having one share in the ltd company.
In our accounts at the end of the year the freehold is shown as a tangible asset which I totally understand - but also as a loan? Thats the bit I don't understand - non of the flat owners have taken a loan out against the freehold.
Not sure any of us understand why this is - can phone the accountants tomorrow but thought someone out there would know?
I live in a flat - we own the freehold - all having one share in the ltd company.
In our accounts at the end of the year the freehold is shown as a tangible asset which I totally understand - but also as a loan? Thats the bit I don't understand - non of the flat owners have taken a loan out against the freehold.
Not sure any of us understand why this is - can phone the accountants tomorrow but thought someone out there would know?
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Thanks for replying.
When you acquired the freehold was it through the company, or did the residents acquire it individually?
Not too sure of how it was bought - before my time - but think it was by the ltd company that was set up by the residents to run the building - who are the five flat owners who all own one share in the company - if someone sells up then the share has to be transferred to the new flat owner.
Hope that makes sense.
For example, you say you bought after the company was formed, and you are not sure how it was purchased originally.
Perhaps the 'loan' is just the indebtness to each shareholder.
There may also be some information in the legal paperwork you have from when you purchased the flat and freehold share.
Have spent ages googling but can't find anything.
From what you describe it sounds like the asset is the freehold and the equity is the indebtedness the company has to each shareholder. I'm guessing the purchase price reflected the fact the freehold is owned by the flat owners.
A call to the accountant should clear it up, so hopefully the replies so far will assist in understanding their answer.
The company gets the money from the new owner and passes it to the old owner, as the company itself has no cash.
At least that makes sense to me, although only the company accountant can confirm this.
Is there any 'equity' in the accounts?
And actually the shareholder loan account is 116,825 not 11630 which makes sense as the shares are £5 which when added to the credit sum of 116,825 makes the sum of 116,830 which is the tangible asset.
As an accountant and a previous freehold/leasehold owner, I would not have done the accounts for the freehold in that way.
We have a company secretary who runs the bank account and sends off all the figures.