Originally Posted by
JBlink:
“Yes you do
Yes they would
Check out the sale of goods act http://www.berr.gov.uk/consumers/fac...page38311.html”
Not necessarily - suggest you read it a bit more thoroughly:
• Wherever goods are bought they must "conform to contract". This means they must be as described, fit for purpose and of satisfactory quality (i.e. not inherently faulty at the time of sale).
This is met because the OP has had the set for more than 12 months without any fault, therefore any reasonable person would state it wasn't faulty at time of purchase.
• For up to six years after purchase (five years from discovery in Scotland) purchasers can demand damages (which a court would equate to the cost of a repair or replacement).
The operative word here is DEMAND - there is no guarantee that a court will agree that the failure is unreasonable at this point in time - it will depend on the magnitude of the fault and the cost of repair.
• In general, the onus is on all purchasers to prove the goods did not conform to contract (e.g. was inherently faulty) and should have reasonably lasted until this point in time (i.e. perishable goods do not last for six years).
So on what basis should the goods have lasted longer without any failure then ? The SSGA does not stipulate a tv should be defect free for 2,3,4,5 or 6 years. It merely states that you can pursue a claim against the seller.
As I've stated many times before on other threads - if the law stated that a TV had to be guaranteed for 5 years, then the retailers would do that. It doesn't so they don't.
Put simply, a product is guaranteed for a period of time. That ensures that whatever happens, you won't pay for a repair.
After that, you have no guarantees of free repairs or replacements. If you take it to court, there's no guarantee you'll win. The only guaranteed way to avoid any potential repair cost is to take out some form of warranty on the item. It doesn't matter whether it's a TV, cooker or a car the same principles apply.